[Free] 2018(July) Dumps4cert CompTIA SY0-401 Dumps with VCE and PDF Download 541-550

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CompTIA Security Certification

Question No: 541 – (Topic 3)

A new security analyst is given the task of determining whether any of the company’s

servers are vulnerable to a recently discovered attack on an old version of SSH. Which of the following is the quickest FIRST step toward determining the version of SSH running on these servers?

  1. Passive scanning

  2. Banner grabbing

  3. Protocol analysis

  4. Penetration testing

Answer: B Explanation:

B: Banner grabbing looks at the banner, or header information messages sent with data to find out about the system(s). Banners often identify the host, the operating system running on it, and other information that can be useful if you are going to attempt to later breach the security of it. Banners can be snagged with Telnet as well as tools like netcat or Nmap. In other words Banner grabbing looks at the banner, or header, information messages sent with data to find out about the system(s). Thus a quick way to check which version of SSH is running on your server.

Question No: 542 – (Topic 3)

Highly sensitive data is stored in a database and is accessed by an application on a DMZ server. The disk drives on all servers are fully encrypted. Communication between the application server and end-users is also encrypted. Network ACLs prevent any connections to the database server except from the application server. Which of the following can still result in exposure of the sensitive data in the database server?

  1. SQL Injection

  2. Theft of the physical database server

  3. Cookies

  4. Cross-site scripting

Answer: A Explanation:

The question discusses a very secure environment with disk and transport level encryption and access control lists restricting access. SQL data in a database is accessed by SQL queries from an application on the application server. The data can still be compromised by a SQL injection attack.

SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in

which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application#39;s software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.

Question No: 543 – (Topic 3)

A security administrator wants to perform routine tests on the network during working hours when certain applications are being accessed by the most people. Which of the following would allow the security administrator to test the lack of security controls for those applications with the least impact to the system?

  1. Penetration test

  2. Vulnerability scan

  3. Load testing

  4. Port scanner

Answer: B Explanation:

A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan scans for known weaknesses such as missing patches or security updates.

A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers.

Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network#39;s security.

Question No: 544 – (Topic 3)

During a security assessment, an administrator wishes to see which services are running on a remote server. Which of the following should the administrator use?

  1. Port scanner

  2. Network sniffer

  3. Protocol analyzer

  4. Process list

Answer: A Explanation:

Different services use different ports. When a service is enabled on a computer, a network port is opened for that service. For example, enabling the HTTP service on a web server will open port 80 on the server. By determining which ports are open on a remote server, we can determine which services are running on that server.

A port scanner is a software application designed to probe a server or host for open ports. This is often used by administrators to verify security policies of their networks and by attackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromise it.

A port scan or portscan can be defined as a process that sends client requests to a range of server port addresses on a host, with the goal of finding an active port. While not a nefarious process in and of itself, it is one used by hackers to probe target machine services with the aim of exploiting a known vulnerability of that service. However the majority of uses of a port scan are not attacks and are simple probes to determine services available on a remote machine.

Question No: 545 – (Topic 3)

Joe, the information security manager, is tasked with calculating risk and selecting controls to protect a new system. He has identified people, environmental conditions, and events that could affect the new system. Which of the following does he need to estimate NEXT in order to complete his risk calculations?

  1. Vulnerabilities

  2. Risk

  3. Likelihood

  4. Threats

Answer: A Explanation:

In this question, the security administrator has identified people, environmental conditions,

and events that could affect the new system. The next step of the risk assessment is to determine the vulnerabilities of the system itself.

Risk assessment deals with the threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts of a loss of information-processing capabilities or a loss of information itself. A vulnerability is a weakness that could be exploited by a threat. Each risk that can be identified should be outlined, described, and evaluated for the likelihood of it occurring. The key here is to think outside the box. Conventional threats and risks are often too limited when considering risk assessment.

The key components of a risk-assessment process are outlined here:

Risks to Which the Organization Is Exposed: This component allows you to develop scenarios that can help you evaluate how to deal with these risks if they occur. An operating system, server, or application may have known risks in certain environments. You should create a plan for how your organization will best deal with these risks and the best way to respond.

Risks That Need Addressing: The risk-assessment component also allows an organization to provide a reality check on which risks are real and which are unlikely. This process helps an organization focus on its resources as well as on the risks that are most likely to occur. For example, industrial espionage and theft are likely, but the risk of a hurricane damaging the server room in Indiana is very low. Therefore, more resources should be allocated to prevent espionage or theft as opposed to the latter possibility.

Question No: 546 – (Topic 3)

A new virtual server was created for the marketing department. The server was installed on an existing host machine. Users in the marketing department report that they are unable to connect to the server. Technicians verify that the server has an IP address in the same VLAN as the marketing department users. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the users are unable to connect to the server?

  1. The new virtual server’s MAC address was not added to the ACL on the switch

  2. The new virtual server’s MAC address triggered a port security violation on the switch

  3. The new virtual server’s MAC address triggered an implicit deny in the switch

  4. The new virtual server’s MAC address was not added to the firewall rules on the switch

Answer: A Explanation:

Configuring the switch to allow only traffic from computers based upon their physical

address is known as MAC filtering. The physical address is known as the MAC address. Every network adapter has a unique MAC address hardcoded into the adapter.

You can configure the ports of a switch to allow connections from computers with specific MAC addresses only and block all other MAC addresses.

In computer networking, MAC Filtering (or GUI filtering, or layer 2 address filtering) refers to a security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network.

MAC addresses are uniquely assigned to each card, so using MAC filtering on a network permits and denies network access to specific devices through the use of blacklists and whitelists. While the restriction of network access through the use of lists is straightforward, an individual person is not identified by a MAC address, rather a device only, so an authorized person will need to have a whitelist entry for each device that he or she would use to access the network.

Question No: 547 – (Topic 3)

A security administrator must implement all requirements in the following corporate policy: Passwords shall be protected against offline password brute force attacks. Passwords shall be protected against online password brute force attacks. Which of the following technical controls must be implemented to enforce the corporate policy? (Select THREE).

  1. Account lockout

  2. Account expiration

  3. Screen locks

  4. Password complexity

  5. Minimum password lifetime

  6. Minimum password length

Answer: A,D,F Explanation:

A brute force attack is a trial-and-error method used to obtain information such as a user password or personal identification number (PIN). In a brute force attack, automated software is used to generate a large number of consecutive guesses as to the value of the desired data. Brute force attacks may be used by criminals to crack encrypted data, or by security analysts to test an organization#39;s network security.

A brute force attack may also be referred to as brute force cracking.

For example, a form of brute force attack known as a dictionary attack might try all the words in a dictionary. Other forms of brute force attack might try commonly-used

passwords or combinations of letters and numbers.

The best defense against brute force attacks strong passwords. The following password policies will ensure that users have strong (difficult to guess) passwords:

F: Minimum password length. This policy specifies the minimum number of characters a password should have. For example: a minimum password length of 8 characters is regarded as good security practice.

D: Password complexity determines what characters a password should include. For example, you could require a password to contain uppercase and lowercase letters and numbers. This will ensure that passwords don’t consist of dictionary words which are easy to crack using brute force techniques.

A: Account lockout policy: This policy ensures that a user account is locked after a number of incorrect password entries. For example, you could specify that if a wrong password is entered three times, the account will be locked for a period of time or indefinitely until the account is unlocked by an administrator.

Question No: 548 – (Topic 3)

A security technician is attempting to improve the overall security posture of an internal mail server. Which of the following actions would BEST accomplish this goal?

  1. Monitoring event logs daily

  2. Disabling unnecessary services

  3. Deploying a content filter on the network

  4. Deploy an IDS on the network

Answer: B Explanation:

One of the most basic practices for reducing the attack surface of a specific host is to disable unnecessary services. Services running on a host, especially network services provide an avenue through which the system can be attacked. If a service is not being used, disable it.

Question No: 549 – (Topic 3)

A user has plugged in a wireless router from home with default configurations into a

network jack at the office. This is known as:

  1. an evil twin.

  2. an IV attack.

  3. a rogue access point.

  4. an unauthorized entry point.

Answer: C Explanation:

A rogue access point is a wireless access point that should not be there. In this question, the wireless router has been connected to the corporate network without authorization.

Therefore, it is a rogue access point.

A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has either been installed on a secure company network without explicit authorization from a local network administrator, or has been created to allow a hacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack. Rogue access points of the first kind can pose a security threat to large organizations with many employees, because anyone with access to the premises can install (maliciously or non- maliciously) an inexpensive wireless router that can potentially allow access to a secure network to unauthorized parties. Rogue access points of the second kind target networks that do not employ mutual authentication (client-server server-client) and may be used in conjunction with a rogue RADIUS server, depending on security configuration of the target network.

To prevent the installation of rogue access points, organizations can install wireless intrusion prevention systems to monitor the radio spectrum for unauthorized access points.

Question No: 550 – (Topic 3)

A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.

Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?

  1. Malicious insider threat

  2. Zero-day

  3. Client-side attack

  4. Malicious add-on

Answer: B Explanation:

A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it-this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.

In this question, there are no patches are available to mitigate the vulnerability. This is therefore a zero-day vulnerability.

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